posted a year ago
The simple answer is yeS. Because contracts are binding legal agreements, any changes to the terms of the contract need to be formally agreed upon by all parties involved.
There are certain circumstances where a contract modification may not need to be in writing. For example, if both parties agree verbally to make a change, there is no dispute about what was agreed upon. The modification may be enforceable without being reduced to writing. Similarly, suppose a court finds that one party has disadvantaged the other through deceptive conduct or bad faith bargaining. In that case, they may order that party to fulfill their original obligations (or modify the contract accordingly).